7: Elections
SECTION A: MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS
Q1.
Which of the following is elected through direct elections?
a)
President
b)
Rajya Sabha members
c)
Lok Sabha members
d)
Vice President
Answer:
c) Lok Sabha members
Q2.
The President of India is elected through:
a)
Direct election
b)
Indirect election
c)
Nomination
d)
Selection by Parliament alone
Answer:
b) Indirect election
Q3.
Members of the Vidhan Sabha are elected for a term of:
a)
4 years
b)
5 years
c)
6 years
d)
3 years
Answer:
b) 5 years
Q4.
Which of the following is NOT ensured through periodic elections?
a)
Accountability
b)
Representation
c)
Hereditary succession
d)
Legitimacy
Answer:
c) Hereditary succession
Q5.
The term 'psephology' is derived from which language?
a)
Latin
b)
Greek
c)
French
d)
Sanskrit
Answer:
b) Greek
Q6.
'Psephos' in Greek means:
a)
Vote
b)
Pebble
c)
Ballot
d)
Election
Answer:
b) Pebble
Q7.
Psephology is the scientific study of:
a)
Governments
b)
Elections
c)
Constitutions
d)
Political parties
Answer:
b) Elections
Q8.
Which body has the superintendence, direction, and control of elections in
India?
a)
Supreme Court
b)
Election Commission of India
c)
Parliament
d)
NITI Aayog
Answer:
b) Election Commission of India
Q9.
The Election Commission of India was established on:
a)
26 January 1950
b)
25 January 1950
c)
15 August 1947
d)
26 November 1949
Answer:
b) 25 January 1950
Q10.
Which Articles of the Constitution provide for the establishment of the ECI?
a)
Articles 300–310
b)
Articles 324–329
c)
Articles 350–360
d)
Articles 200–210
Answer:
b) Articles 324–329
Q11.
The electoral system used for Lok Sabha and Vidhan Sabha elections in India is:
a)
Proportional Representation
b)
First-Past-The-Post
c)
Single Transferable Vote
d)
Majority System
Answer:
b) First-Past-The-Post
Q12.
Elections to the Rajya Sabha are conducted through:
a)
First-Past-The-Post
b)
Direct election by citizens
c)
Proportional Representation
d)
Nomination only
Answer:
c) Proportional Representation
Q13.
In the FPTP system, a candidate wins if they secure:
a)
More than 50% of votes
b)
The highest number of votes, even if less than 50%
c)
Exactly 50% of votes
d)
Two-thirds majority
Answer:
b) The highest number of votes, even if less than 50%
Q14.
Which system requires voters to vote for a party rather than a candidate?
a)
FPTP
b)
Majority System
c)
Proportional Representation
d)
None of the above
Answer:
c) Proportional Representation
Q15.
The Vidhan Parishad is elected through:
a)
FPTP
b)
Direct popular vote
c)
Proportional Representation by Single Transferable Vote
d)
Nomination by the President
Answer:
c) Proportional Representation by Single Transferable Vote
Q16.
How many states in India currently have a bicameral legislature?
a)
Four
b)
Five
c)
Six
d)
Seven
Answer:
c) Six
Q17.
Which of the following states does NOT have a Vidhan Parishad?
a)
Bihar
b)
Karnataka
c)
Punjab
d)
Uttar Pradesh
Answer:
c) Punjab
Q18.
The Upper House of a state legislature is known as:
a)
Vidhan Sabha
b)
Lok Sabha
c)
Vidhan Parishad
d)
Rajya Sabha
Answer:
c) Vidhan Parishad
Q19.
Members of the Vidhan Parishad can be nominated by the:
a)
Prime Minister
b)
Chief Minister
c)
Governor
d)
President
Answer:
c) Governor
Q20.
In the Single Transferable Vote system, the candidate with the lowest votes is:
a)
Automatically declared elected
b)
Eliminated, and votes transferred
c)
Given a second chance
d)
Disqualified permanently
Answer:
b) Eliminated, and votes transferred
Q21.
In the STV quota formula, which of the following is added to the denominator?
a)
Total valid votes
b)
Seats to be filled
c)
1 (one)
d)
Number of candidates
Answer:
c) 1 (one)
Q22.
Which Act deals with allocation of seats and delimitation of constituencies?
a)
Representation of the People Act, 1951
b)
Representation of the People Act, 1950
c)
Presidential and Vice-Presidential Act, 1952
d)
Anti-Defection Act, 1985
Answer:
b) Representation of the People Act, 1950
Q23.
Which Act deals with the conduct of elections and post-election disputes?
a)
Representation of the People Act, 1950
b)
Representation of the People Act, 1951
c)
Government of India Act, 1935
d)
Constitution (52nd Amendment) Act
Answer:
b) Representation of the People Act, 1951
Q24.
The Representation of the People Act, 1950 ensures that every citizen above the
age of ___ has the right to vote.
a)
21 years
b)
16 years
c)
18 years
d)
25 years
Answer:
c) 18 years
Q25.
The Presidential and Vice-Presidential Act was passed in:
a)
1950
b)
1951
c)
1952
d)
1985
Answer:
c) 1952
Q26.
Which of the following is an electoral offence under RPA 1951?
a)
Campaigning through rallies
b)
Appealing for votes on the basis of religion or caste
c)
Distributing party manifestos
d)
Holding party meetings
Answer:
b) Appealing for votes on the basis of religion or caste
Q27.
Taking assistance from which of the following persons is prohibited for
candidates under RPA 1951?
a)
Family members
b)
Gazetted officers and police personnel
c)
Party workers
d)
Private citizens
Answer:
b) Gazetted officers and police personnel
Q28.
Delimitation refers to:
a)
Registering political parties
b)
Fixing territorial boundaries and number of seats of constituencies
c)
Counting of votes
d)
Preparing voter ID cards
Answer:
b) Fixing territorial boundaries and number of seats of constituencies
Q29.
Which Article of the Constitution mandates the establishment of a Delimitation
Commission?
a)
Article 79
b)
Article 82
c)
Article 324
d)
Article 356
Answer:
b) Article 82
Q30.
How many Delimitation Commissions has India had so far?
a)
Two
b)
Three
c)
Four
d)
Five
Answer:
c) Four
Q31.
The Delimitation Commissions were constituted in the years:
a)
1950, 1960, 1970, 1980
b)
1952, 1963, 1973, 2002
c)
1951, 1961, 1971, 2001
d)
1955, 1965, 1975, 2005
Answer:
b) 1952, 1963, 1973, 2002
Q32.
Election work at the State level is supervised by the:
a)
Governor
b)
Chief Electoral Officer
c)
Chief Minister
d)
District Collector
Answer:
b) Chief Electoral Officer
Q33.
Who appoints the Chief Electoral Officer of a State?
a)
The State Government alone
b)
The ECI, in consultation with the State Government
c)
The Governor alone
d)
The President
Answer:
b) The ECI, in consultation with the State Government
Q34.
Which of the following is NOT a function of the ECI?
a)
Creating the electoral roll
b)
Deciding the date of elections
c)
Passing laws related to elections
d)
Registering political parties
Answer:
c) Passing laws related to elections
Q35.
SIR stands for:
a)
Special Intensive Revision
b)
State Inclusive Registration
c)
Special Inclusive Roll
d)
State Intensive Revision
Answer:
a) Special Intensive Revision
Q36.
The main purpose of SIR is to:
a)
Announce election results
b)
Update, verify, and correct electoral rolls
c)
Allocate symbols to parties
d)
Fix constituency boundaries
Answer:
b) Update, verify, and correct electoral rolls
Q37.
Names of voters are deleted from the electoral roll due to all of the following
EXCEPT:
a)
Death of the voter
b)
Change of residence
c)
Duplicate enrolment
d)
Change of political opinion
Answer:
d) Change of political opinion
Q38.
Which of the following factors is considered by the ECI while deciding the
election schedule?
a)
Stock market trends
b)
Weather conditions and agricultural cycle
c)
International relations
d)
Currency exchange rates
Answer:
b) Weather conditions and agricultural cycle
Q39.
Who can contest elections in India?
a)
Only members of registered political parties
b)
Only government employees
c)
Both party candidates and independent candidates
d)
Only citizens above 25 years with no criminal record
Answer:
c) Both party candidates and independent candidates
Q40.
The ECI ensures inner-party democracy by requiring parties to:
a)
Submit annual accounts only
b)
Hold periodic organisational elections
c)
Disclose manifestos
d)
Register with the RBI
Answer:
b) Hold periodic organisational elections
Q41.
National Voters' Day is celebrated on:
a)
15 August
b)
26 January
c)
25 January
d)
2 October
Answer:
c) 25 January
Q42.
The Voters' Pledge commits citizens to vote without being influenced by
considerations of:
a)
Age, gender, and profession
b)
Religion, race, caste, community, language, or inducement
c)
Income and education
d)
Political ideology
Answer:
b) Religion, race, caste, community, language, or inducement
Q43.
Home voting facility for senior citizens above 85 years was extended across
India for the first time during:
a)
2019 General Elections
b)
2014 General Elections
c)
2024 General Elections
d)
2009 General Elections
Answer:
c) 2024 General Elections
Q44.
The EVM with Braille is a facility meant for:
a)
Senior citizens
b)
Service voters
c)
Visually impaired voters
d)
Transgender voters
Answer:
c) Visually impaired voters
Q45.
Which app allows candidates and political parties to apply for permissions such
as rallies and loudspeakers?
a)
Voter Helpline App
b)
Saksham App
c)
Suvidha App
d)
cVIGIL App
Answer:
c) Suvidha App
Q46.
ERONET is primarily used for:
a)
Reporting Model Code of Conduct violations
b)
Seamless processing of forms and maintenance of e-rolls
c)
Managing vehicles for election duty
d)
Postal ballots for service voters
Answer:
b) Seamless processing of forms and maintenance of e-rolls
Q47.
ETPBS stands for:
a)
Electronic Transfer of Postal Ballot System
b)
Electronically Transmitted Postal Ballot System
c)
Electoral Transmission of Public Ballot System
d)
Election Transfer Postal Booking System
Answer:
b) Electronically Transmitted Postal Ballot System
Q48.
ETPBS is meant for which category of voters?
a)
Senior citizens
b)
Service voters
c)
First-time voters
d)
Persons with disabilities
Answer:
b) Service voters
Q49.
Which app helps voters with services like registration, transposition, and
verification?
a)
Suvidha
b)
Sugam
c)
Voter Helpline App
d)
ERONET
Answer:
c) Voter Helpline App
Q50.
The Saksham App is specifically designed for:
a)
Political parties
b)
Persons with Disabilities
c)
Police personnel
d)
Journalists
Answer:
b) Persons with Disabilities
Q51.
cVIGIL App is used by voters to:
a)
Register as a new voter
b)
Report Model Code of Conduct violations
c)
Check election results
d)
Apply for postal ballots
Answer:
b) Report Model Code of Conduct violations
Q52.
Sugam is a web-based application used for:
a)
Managing requisitioned vehicles for election work
b)
Voter registration
c)
Counting of votes
d)
Party symbol allocation
Answer:
a) Managing requisitioned vehicles for election work
Q53.
Political parties help citizens by all of the following EXCEPT:
a)
Organising public opinion
b)
Campaigning on specific issues
c)
Offering meaningful choices to voters
d)
Controlling the judiciary
Answer:
d) Controlling the judiciary
Q54.
India follows which type of party system?
a)
One-party system
b)
Two-party system
c)
Multi-party system
d)
No-party system
Answer:
c) Multi-party system
Q55.
Defection refers to:
a)
Joining a party before elections
b)
Abandoning or switching from the party under whose banner one was elected
c)
Contesting as an independent candidate
d)
Forming a new political party
Answer:
b) Abandoning or switching from the party under whose banner one was elected
Q56.
The Anti-Defection Law was passed through which Constitutional Amendment?
a)
42nd Amendment
b)
44th Amendment
c)
52nd Amendment
d)
61st Amendment
Answer:
c) 52nd Amendment
Q57.
The Anti-Defection Law was passed in the year:
a)
1975
b)
1985
c)
1995
d)
2003
Answer:
b) 1985
Q58.
Under the Anti-Defection Law, who decides on cases of disqualification?
a)
The Prime Minister
b)
The President
c)
The Speaker/Chairman of the House
d)
The Election Commission
Answer:
c) The Speaker/Chairman of the House
Q59.
A member can be disqualified under the Anti-Defection Law if they:
a)
Criticise government policy
b)
Vote against the party whip or voluntarily give up party membership
c)
Attend party meetings
d)
Support the party's manifesto
Answer:
b) Vote against the party whip or voluntarily give up party membership
Q60.
To be recognised as a National Party, a party must secure at least ___ of valid
votes in four or more states along with 4 Lok Sabha seats.
a)
4%
b)
6%
c)
8%
d)
10%
Answer:
b) 6%
Q61.
A party can also be recognised as a National Party if it wins at least ___ of
Lok Sabha seats with candidates elected from at least 3 states.
a)
1%
b)
2%
c)
3%
d)
5%
Answer:
b) 2%
Q62.
To qualify as a State Party by vote share alone (without winning any seat
condition combined), a party must secure at least:
a)
6% of votes with 2 Assembly seats
b)
10% of votes with no seats
c)
15% of votes
d)
20% of votes
Answer:
a) 6% of votes with 2 Assembly seats
Q63.
RUPP stands for:
a)
Recognised Unified Political Party
b)
Registered Unrecognised Political Party
c)
Regional Union of Political Parties
d)
Recognised Union Political Party
Answer:
b) Registered Unrecognised Political Party
Q64.
Which of the following is true of a Registered Unrecognised Political Party?
a)
It has secured recognition in 4 states
b)
It has not secured enough votes or has never contested elections
c)
It automatically becomes a National Party
d)
It cannot be registered with the ECI
Answer:
b) It has not secured enough votes or has never contested elections
Q65.
The era of coalition politics in India began around:
a)
1952
b)
1967
c)
1977
d)
1991
Answer:
b) 1967
Q66.
The Janata Party was formed as an alliance against the backdrop of:
a)
The Partition of India
b)
The National Emergency (1975–1977)
c)
The Indo-Pak War
d)
The Green Revolution
Answer:
b) The National Emergency (1975–1977)
Q67.
The National Democratic Alliance (NDA) is led by:
a)
Indian National Congress
b)
Bharatiya Janata Party
c)
Aam Aadmi Party
d)
Communist Party of India
Answer:
b) Bharatiya Janata Party
Q68.
The United Progressive Alliance (UPA) was led by:
a)
BJP
b)
INC
c)
BSP
d)
CPI(M)
Answer:
b) INC
Q69.
The INC-led alliance was reconstituted in 2023 as:
a)
National Democratic Alliance
b)
Indian National Developmental Inclusive Alliance
c)
Janata Alliance
d)
United Front
Answer:
b) Indian National Developmental Inclusive Alliance
Q70.
Which of the following is a major challenge to free and fair elections
mentioned in the chapter?
a)
Overproduction of ballot papers
b)
Misinformation and fake news
c)
Excess voter turnout
d)
Too many polling booths
Answer:
b) Misinformation and fake news
Q71.
VVPAT stands for:
a)
Voter Verifiable Paper Audit Trail
b)
Voting Verification Paper Access Tool
c)
Vote Verification Public Audit Test
d)
Voter Verified Postal Audit Trail
Answer:
a) Voter Verifiable Paper Audit Trail
Q72.
The purpose of VVPAT is to:
a)
Speed up vote counting
b)
Allow voters to verify their vote was recorded correctly
c)
Register new voters
d)
Replace EVMs completely
Answer:
b) Allow voters to verify their vote was recorded correctly
Q73.
The Model Code of Conduct is a set of guidelines meant for:
a)
Voters only
b)
Political parties and candidates during elections
c)
Judges and lawyers
d)
Government employees only
Answer:
b) Political parties and candidates during elections
Q74.
As per the chapter, India's total eligible voters in 2024 were approximately:
a)
50 crore
b)
75 crore
c)
96.8 crore
d)
120 crore
Answer:
c) 96.8 crore
Q75.
The International Election Visitors' Programme (IEVP) is associated with:
a)
The United Nations Security Council
b)
The Election Commission of India
c)
The World Bank
d)
The Supreme Court of India
Answer:
b) The Election Commission of India
Q76.
The ECI has signed MoUs with international organisations including all EXCEPT:
a)
IFES
b)
International IDEA
c)
United Nations
d)
WHO
Answer:
d) WHO
Q77.
Which of the following elections uses the "Majority System" as
explained in the imaginary country example (Ratnadweep)?
a)
A system where the top two candidates compete in a second round if no one gets
50%
b)
A system where seats are allotted based on vote percentage
c)
A system where only the highest vote-getter wins regardless of percentage
d)
A system with no voting at all
Answer:
a) A system where the top two candidates compete in a second round if no one
gets 50%
Q78.
In the imaginary example given in the textbook, "Swarnalok" uses
which electoral system?
a)
FPTP
b)
Majority System
c)
Proportional Representation
d)
Nomination system
Answer:
c) Proportional Representation
Q79.
Local bodies such as Panchayats and Municipal Corporations are elected through:
a)
Indirect elections
b)
Direct elections
c)
Nomination
d)
Selection by the state government
Answer:
b) Direct elections
Q80.
Which of the following best defines an election?
a)
A process of selecting government officers through examinations
b)
A process through which citizens exercise the right to vote and fulfil their
responsibility as citizens
c)
A method of appointing judges
d)
A system of choosing civil servants
Answer:
b) A process through which citizens exercise the right to vote and fulfil their
responsibility as citizens
SECTION
B: SHORT ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS
Q1.
Why are periodic elections essential to a democracy? (3 Marks)
- They ensure elected
representatives seek a fresh mandate after their term ends.
- They uphold the principle of
accountability of representatives to the people.
- They give citizens a genuine
choice among competing parties and candidates.
Q2.
Distinguish between Direct and Indirect Elections. (3 Marks)
Direct
Elections
- Citizens vote directly for their
representatives.
- Used for Lok Sabha, Vidhan Sabha
and Local Bodies.
- Gives citizens an immediate say in
choosing representatives.
Indirect
Elections
- Citizens elect representatives who
then elect leaders.
- Used for President, Vice-President
and Rajya Sabha.
- Involves an intermediary layer of
elected representatives.
Q3.
Explain the term 'Psephology'. (3 Marks)
- Psephology is the scientific study
of elections.
- Derived from the Greek words psēphos
(pebble) and logy (study).
- The term originated in ancient
Greece where pebbles were used for voting.
Q4.
What is the First-Past-The-Post (FPTP) System? (3 Marks)
- It is the plurality electoral
system used for Lok Sabha and Vidhan Sabha elections.
- Each voter casts one vote for one
candidate.
- The candidate with the highest
number of votes wins, even without securing 50% of votes.
Q5.
Explain the Proportional Representation (PR) System. (3 Marks)
- Voters vote for a political party
rather than an individual candidate.
- Seats are allotted according to
the proportion of votes received by each party.
- Used in India for Rajya Sabha,
President and Vice-President elections.
Q6.
What is the Single Transferable Vote (STV) System? (3 Marks)
- A type of Proportional
Representation used for Vidhan Parishad elections.
- Voters rank candidates in order of
preference.
- Candidates meeting the quota are
elected and surplus/remaining votes are transferred until all seats are
filled.
Q7.
What is the Vidhan Parishad? How is it constituted? (3 Marks)
- It is the Upper House (Legislative
Council) of a state's bicameral legislature.
- It exists in Andhra Pradesh,
Bihar, Karnataka, Maharashtra, Telangana and Uttar Pradesh.
- Members are elected by MLAs, local
bodies, graduates, teachers and some are nominated by the Governor.
Q8.
Significance of the Representation of the People Act, 1950. (3 Marks)
- Provides for allocation of seats
and delimitation of constituencies.
- Deals with preparation and
revision of electoral rolls.
- Ensures voting rights for every
eligible citizen aged 18 years and above without discrimination.
Q9.
Significance of the Representation of the People Act, 1951. (3 Marks)
- Regulates nomination of candidates
and election campaigns.
- Governs voting procedures and
election disputes.
- Defines electoral offences and
corrupt practices.
Q10.
Mention any three electoral offences under the RPA, 1951. (3 Marks)
- Giving gifts or bribes to influence
voting or candidature.
- Seeking votes based on religion,
caste, race, community or language.
- Using government officials to
support a candidate.
Q11.
What is Delimitation? Why is it necessary? (3 Marks)
- Delimitation is the process of
fixing constituencies and the number of seats.
- Ensures equal population
representation in constituencies.
- Prevents unequal representation
among MPs and MLAs.
Q12.
Delimitation Commission in India. (3 Marks)
- Constituted under Article 82 of
the Constitution.
- India has had four Delimitation
Commissions.
- They were formed in 1952, 1963,
1973 and 2002.
Q13.
Election Commission of India (ECI). (3 Marks)
- An autonomous constitutional body
established on 25 January 1950.
- Supervises, directs and controls
elections.
- Functions under Articles 324–329
of the Constitution.
Q14.
Election work at the State level. (3 Marks)
- Supervised by the Chief Electoral
Officer (CEO).
- CEO is appointed by the ECI in
consultation with the State Government.
- District Magistrates and
Tahsildars function as election officers.
Q15.
ECI and Electoral Rolls. (3 Marks)
- Enumerators collect data from
eligible voters.
- Electoral rolls are prepared
constituency-wise and polling station-wise.
- Only voters whose names appear on
the roll can vote.
Q16.
What is Special Intensive Revision (SIR)? (3 Marks)
- A process of updating and
correcting electoral rolls.
- Includes all eligible voters while
removing ineligible ones.
- Deletes names due to death,
migration, duplicate enrolment or permanent absence.
Q17.
Factors considered while deciding election schedule. (3 Marks)
- Weather conditions.
- Agricultural season.
- Examination schedules and
festivals.
Q18.
How does the ECI regulate political parties? (3 Marks)
- Registers political parties.
- Ensures organisational elections
within parties.
- Classifies parties and allots
election symbols.
Q19.
Three ECI initiatives for inclusive elections. (3 Marks)
- Braille-enabled EVMs.
- Home voting for 85+ senior
citizens and eligible PwDs.
- Saksham App for Persons with
Disabilities.
Q20.
Voter Helpline App and cVIGIL App. (3 Marks)
- Voter Helpline App helps with
registration, correction and election information.
- cVIGIL allows citizens to report
MCC violations.
- Flying squads respond quickly
using GPS location.
Q21.
What is ETPBS? (3 Marks)
- Stands for Electronically
Transmitted Postal Ballot System.
- Designed for Service Voters.
- Enables electronic transmission of
postal ballots.
Q22.
Importance of Political Parties. (3 Marks)
- Organise public opinion.
- Present manifestos and policies.
- Provide voters with meaningful
political choices.
Q23.
What is Defection? (3 Marks)
- Leaving the political party on
whose ticket one was elected.
- Joining another party or acting
independently.
- May be viewed as opportunism or
acting according to conscience.
Q24.
Anti-Defection Law. (3 Marks)
- Enacted through the 52nd
Constitutional Amendment Act, 1985.
- Prevents political defections and
ensures stability.
- Members may be disqualified for
leaving the party or violating the party whip.
Q25.
Criteria for National Party Status. (3 Marks)
- 6% votes in four or more states
plus four Lok Sabha seats.
- OR 2% Lok Sabha seats from at
least three states.
- OR recognised as a State Party in
four or more states.
Q26.
Registered Unrecognised Political Party (RUPP). (3 Marks)
- Registered with the ECI but not
recognised as a National or State Party.
- May never have contested
elections.
- Does not receive privileges like a
permanent election symbol.
Q27.
History of Coalition Politics in India. (3 Marks)
- Coalition politics began after
1967.
- Janata Party formed the first
coalition government in 1977.
- NDA and UPA/INDIA alliance became
major coalitions from the late 1990s onwards.
Q28.
Challenges to Free and Fair Elections. (3 Marks)
- Misinformation and fake news.
- Voter and candidate intimidation.
- Conducting elections for over 96.8
crore voters across diverse regions.
Q29.
How does the ECI ensure free and fair elections? (3 Marks)
- Enforces RPA and Model Code of
Conduct.
- Uses EVMs and VVPAT.
- Conducts voter awareness programmes
and ensures constant vigilance.
Q30.
Significance of National Voters' Day and the Voters' Pledge. (3 Marks)
- National Voters' Day is celebrated
on 25 January.
- The Voters' Pledge promotes
democratic values and free, fair and peaceful elections.
- It encourages citizens to vote
fearlessly without influence of religion, caste, race, community, language
or inducements.
SECTION
C: LONG ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS
Q1.
Explain the importance of elections in a democracy. (5 Marks)
- Elections ensure representation
by allowing citizens to choose their representatives.
- They ensure equality, as
every citizen has one vote of equal value.
- They promote accountability,
since representatives are answerable to the people.
- They provide legitimacy to
the government through free and fair elections.
- They allow citizens to renew or
withdraw their mandate, preventing indefinite rule.
Q2.
Describe the different electoral systems used in India with examples. (5 Marks)
- First-Past-The-Post (FPTP):
Used for Lok Sabha and Vidhan Sabha elections; the candidate with the
highest votes wins.
- Proportional Representation (PR):
Used for elections to the Rajya Sabha, President and Vice-President.
- Single Transferable Vote (STV):
A type of PR used for Rajya Sabha and Vidhan Parishad elections through
preference voting.
- The Constitution adopted FPTP
as the main system for direct elections because of its simplicity.
- Different electoral systems
influence political representation and fairness in different ways.
Q3.
Explain the Single Transferable Vote (STV) system with its counting procedure.
(5 Marks)
- STV is a Proportional
Representation system used for Rajya Sabha and Vidhan Parishad
elections.
- A quota is calculated using
the formula:
Quota = (Total Valid Votes ÷ (Seats to be Filled + 1)) + 1 - Voters rank candidates in order of
preference (1st, 2nd, 3rd, etc.).
- Candidates reaching the required
quota through first-preference votes are declared elected.
- The lowest-scoring candidate is
eliminated and votes are transferred according to the next preference
until all seats are filled.
Q4.
Discuss the key provisions of the Representation of the People Act, 1950 and
1951. (5 Marks)
- RPA, 1950:
Deals with allocation of seats and delimitation of constituencies.
- RPA, 1950:
Provides for preparation and revision of electoral rolls and voting rights
for citizens aged 18 years and above.
- RPA, 1951:
Prescribes rules for nomination of candidates, election campaigns and
voting procedures.
- RPA, 1951:
Provides for settlement of post-election disputes.
- RPA, 1951:
Defines electoral offences and corrupt practices such as bribery, communal
appeals and misuse of government machinery.
Q5.
What is Delimitation? Explain its need and the Delimitation Commissions held so
far. (5 Marks)
- Delimitation is the process of
fixing the number of seats and boundaries of constituencies.
- It is necessary to adjust
constituencies according to changes in population.
- It ensures equal representation by
maintaining a balanced population-to-seat ratio.
- Article 82
of the Constitution provides for the Delimitation Commission.
- India has had four Delimitation
Commissions: 1952, 1963, 1973 and 2002.
Q6.
Discuss the composition, establishment and constitutional basis of the Election
Commission of India. (5 Marks)
- The Election Commission of India
(ECI) is an autonomous constitutional body established on 25 January
1950.
- Articles 324–329
of the Constitution define its powers and functions.
- It conducts elections to the Lok
Sabha, Rajya Sabha, State Legislatures, President and Vice-President.
- Election work in each State is
supervised by the Chief Electoral Officer (CEO).
- District Magistrates, Tahsildars
and other officials serve as election officers during elections.
Q7.
Explain the various functions performed by the Election Commission of India. (5
Marks)
- Prepares and updates electoral
rolls through voter registration and Special Intensive Revision (SIR).
- Decides election schedules after
considering weather, agriculture, examinations and festivals.
- Registers political parties and
allots election symbols.
- Ensures free, fair and inclusive
elections for all voters.
- Uses digital technology for
nominations, election management, counting and declaration of results.
Q8.
What is the Special Intensive Revision (SIR)? Explain its objectives. (5 Marks)
- SIR is the process of updating,
verifying and correcting electoral rolls.
- It includes all eligible voters,
especially new voters aged 18 years and above.
- It removes names of deceased,
shifted, duplicate and untraceable voters.
- It allows citizens to file claims
and objections regarding the electoral roll.
- It ensures accurate, inclusive and
error-free electoral rolls.
Q9.
Describe the digital initiatives taken by the ECI to strengthen electoral
services. (5 Marks)
- Suvidha:
Provides nomination forms and permissions for campaign activities.
- ERONET:
Manages voter registration and electoral rolls digitally.
- ETPBS:
Enables service voters to cast postal ballots electronically.
- Voter Helpline App
and Saksham App: Assist voters and Persons with Disabilities.
- cVIGIL App:
Allows citizens to report Model Code of Conduct violations for quick
action.
Q10.
Explain the initiatives taken by the ECI to make elections more inclusive. (5
Marks)
- EVMs are equipped with Braille
signage for visually impaired voters.
- Home voting facility is available
for senior citizens above 85 years.
- Home voting is also available for Persons
with Disabilities (PwDs) with 40% or more benchmark disability.
- The Saksham App provides
customised electoral services for PwDs.
- These initiatives uphold the ECI's
motto: "No Voter to be Left Behind."
Q11.
"Democracy is not only limited to conducting elections, but also to
ensuring the electoral process is inclusive, impartial, and trustworthy."
Explain. (5 Marks)
- Merely conducting elections does
not guarantee genuine democracy if the process is unfair.
- Personal favours or undue
influence on candidates compromise the fairness of elections.
- Accurate counting of votes is
essential to reflect the true will of the people.
- Elections must be accessible so
that every eligible voter can participate without barriers.
- True democracy requires elections
to be free, fair, transparent, inclusive, and trustworthy.
Q12.
Discuss the role and importance of political parties in a democracy. (5 Marks)
- Political parties educate citizens
about important public issues.
- They organise public opinion on
social, economic, cultural and political matters.
- They campaign on policies and
provide voters with meaningful choices.
- They ensure effective governance
by forming the government and holding it accountable through the
opposition.
- They present manifestos and
election promises to help voters make informed decisions.
Q13.
Explain the multi-party system in India and the concept of defection. (5 Marks)
- India follows a multi-party
system reflecting its linguistic, cultural, religious and regional
diversity.
- Multiple political parties contest
elections, offering different ideologies and policies.
- A person may freely leave one
political party and join another before being elected.
- Leaving the party after being
elected on its ticket is known as defection.
- Defection may be viewed as
political opportunism or as acting according to personal conscience.
Q14.
Describe the Anti-Defection Law of India. (5 Marks)
- The Anti-Defection Law was enacted
through the 52nd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1985.
- Its main objective is to prevent
political defections and ensure stable governments.
- An MP or MLA may be disqualified
if they voluntarily give up party membership.
- A member may also be disqualified
for voting against the party whip without permission.
- The Speaker or Chairman
decides cases of disqualification.
Q15.
Explain the criteria for recognition of National and State political parties by
the ECI. (5 Marks)
- National Party:
Secures 6% valid votes in four or more states and wins 4 Lok
Sabha seats, OR wins 2% of Lok Sabha seats from at least
3 states, OR is recognised as a State Party in four or
more states.
- State Party:
Secures 6% valid votes in the State Assembly election and wins 2
Assembly seats, or fulfils similar criteria in Lok Sabha elections
from that state.
- A State Party may also qualify by
winning at least 3% of Assembly seats (or 3 seats, whichever is higher).
- Alternatively, securing 8% of
valid votes in the state also qualifies a party for State Party
status.
- Recognition gives parties official
privileges such as a reserved election symbol.
Q16.
What are Registered Unrecognised Political Parties (RUPPs)? How are they
different from National/State parties? (5 Marks)
- RUPPs are parties registered with
the ECI but not recognised as National or State parties.
- They may also include parties that
have never contested an election.
- They do not receive a permanently
reserved election symbol.
- They can contest elections but
enjoy fewer privileges than recognised parties.
- This classification helps the ECI
regulate political parties effectively.
Q17.
Trace the evolution of coalition politics and major political alliances in
India. (5 Marks)
- 1967
marked the beginning of coalition politics after the decline of one-party
dominance.
- In 1977, several parties
united to form the Janata Party after the Emergency.
- The Janata Party formed India's
first coalition government at the national level.
- Since the late 1990s, the National
Democratic Alliance (NDA) has been a major political alliance.
- The United Progressive Alliance
(UPA) later evolved into the Indian National Developmental
Inclusive Alliance (INDIA) in 2023.
Q18.
What are the major challenges to conducting free and fair elections in India?
How are they addressed? (5 Marks)
- Major challenges include
misinformation, fake news and intimidation of voters and candidates.
- Conducting elections for over 96.8
crore voters across diverse regions is a huge administrative
challenge.
- The Representation of the
People Acts, 1950 and 1951 provide the legal framework to regulate
elections.
- The Model Code of Conduct (MCC),
EVMs and VVPAT help ensure transparency and fairness.
- Voter awareness programmes and
active citizen participation strengthen free and fair elections.
Q19.
"Elections are the soul of democracy." Discuss. (5 Marks)
- Elections allow citizens to choose
their representatives democratically.
- They ensure accountability by
requiring representatives to seek a fresh mandate.
- They provide legitimacy to
governments based on the people's will.
- They guarantee political equality
by giving every citizen an equal vote.
- Without free and fair elections,
democracy cannot ensure representation, accountability or participation.
Q20.
Explain the difference between the Vidhan Sabha and the Vidhan Parishad. (5
Marks)
|
Vidhan
Sabha |
Vidhan
Parishad |
|
1.
Lower House of the State Legislature. |
1.
Upper House of the State Legislature. |
|
2.
Members are directly elected by the people. |
2.
Members are indirectly elected by MLAs, local bodies, graduates and teachers;
some are nominated by the Governor. |
|
3.
Elections are conducted through the First-Past-The-Post (FPTP) system. |
3.
Elections are conducted through Proportional Representation by Single
Transferable Vote (STV). |
|
4.
Exists in every state with a legislature. |
4.
Exists only in six states (Andhra Pradesh, Bihar, Karnataka,
Maharashtra, Telangana and Uttar Pradesh). |
|
5.
Represents the people directly. |
5.
Includes nominated members from fields such as art, science, literature,
social service and co-operatives. |
Q21.
Explain how the ECI ensures free and fair elections in India. (5 Marks)
- Enforces the Model Code of
Conduct (MCC) to regulate political parties and candidates.
- Uses EVMs with VVPAT for
transparent, secure and verifiable voting.
- Conducts Special Intensive
Revision (SIR) to maintain accurate electoral rolls.
- Ensures inclusive elections
through Braille EVMs, home voting and the Saksham App for PwDs and
senior citizens.
- Uses digital tools like cVIGIL
to report violations and ensure prompt action.
Q22.
Describe the electoral offences and corrupt practices listed under the RPA,
1951. (5 Marks)
- Giving gifts, offers or promises
to influence candidates or voters is an electoral offence.
- Seeking votes on the basis of religion,
caste, race, community or language is prohibited.
- Using the assistance of gazetted
officers, judges or magistrates for election campaigns is illegal.
- Seeking support from armed
forces, police personnel or excise officers is also prohibited.
- These provisions ensure free,
fair and impartial elections by preventing misuse of power and
communal appeals.
Q23.
Compare FPTP, Majority System and Proportional Representation. (5 Marks)
- FPTP (Haritbhumi):
Candidate with the highest votes wins, even without a majority.
- Majority System (Ratnadweep):
A candidate must secure more than 50% votes; otherwise, a run-off
election is held.
- Proportional Representation
(Swarnalok): Seats are allocated according to
each party's vote share.
- FPTP provides stable governments
but may under-represent smaller parties, whereas PR ensures proportional
representation but may lead to coalition governments.
- India uses different electoral
systems for different elections to balance simplicity, stability and
fairness.
Q24.
What initiatives has the ECI taken for Persons with Disabilities (PwDs) and
senior citizens? (5 Marks)
- Braille-enabled EVMs
help visually impaired voters vote independently.
- The Saksham App assists
PwDs with voter registration and polling station information.
- Home voting is available for PwDs
with 40% or more benchmark disability.
- Home voting is also provided for senior
citizens above 85 years.
- Polling stations provide wheelchairs
and volunteers to assist PwDs and elderly voters.
Q25.
Explain the role of the Delimitation Commission and the importance of periodic
delimitation. (5 Marks)
- The Delimitation Commission
determines the number of seats and constituency boundaries.
- It is constituted under Article
82 of the Constitution.
- Periodic delimitation ensures
equal representation despite population changes.
- India has had four Delimitation
Commissions: 1952, 1963, 1973 and 2002.
- It maintains the principle of equal
representation by keeping the population-to-seat ratio nearly equal.
Q26.
"Political parties are essential to a democratic system as they work
directly at the grassroots level." Explain. (5 Marks)
- Political parties organise public
opinion on important issues.
- They conduct campaigns and spread
awareness among voters.
- They offer different ideologies,
policies and programmes to the people.
- They help voters make informed
decisions through manifestos, rallies and debates.
- They connect citizens with the
government and strengthen representation and accountability.
Q27.
Discuss the significance of EVMs and VVPAT in strengthening India's electoral
process. (5 Marks)
- EVMs
make voting and counting faster, easier and more accurate.
- VVPAT
allows voters to verify that their vote has been recorded correctly.
- Together, they improve
transparency and public confidence in elections.
- VVPAT provides a paper trail for
verification in case of disputes or audits.
- Braille-enabled EVMs promote
independent voting for visually impaired citizens.
Q28.
Explain the concept and objectives of 'One Nation, One Election' along with its
advantages and limitations. (5 Marks)
- It proposes conducting Lok
Sabha and State Assembly elections simultaneously.
- It reduces the cost and frequency
of conducting elections.
- It minimises repeated enforcement of
the Model Code of Conduct, improving governance.
- Synchronising the terms of all
legislatures is a major practical challenge.
- It may reduce attention to state
issues and raise concerns about federalism, especially if a state
government falls before completing its term.
Q29.
Discuss the various stakeholders involved in India's electoral process and
their roles. (5 Marks)
- Election Commission of India
(ECI): Conducts and supervises the
entire election process.
- Political Parties:
Contest elections, organise public opinion and present policies.
- Civil Society:
Promotes voter awareness and monitors the fairness of elections.
- Media:
Informs voters about candidates, parties and public issues.
- Voters:
Exercise their constitutional right to vote and ensure democratic
accountability.
Q30.
Why is India's electoral exercise considered unparalleled in the world? (5
Marks)
- India has over 96.8 crore
eligible voters (2024), making it the world's largest democracy.
- Elections are conducted across
thousands of polling stations in diverse geographical regions.
- The Election Commission of
India (ECI) manages the process independently using modern technology.
- It handles voter registration,
nominations, campaigning, security, counting and dispute resolution
efficiently.
- Inclusive initiatives such as Braille
EVMs, home voting and the Saksham App ensure that "No Voter is
Left Behind."
SECTION
D: ASSERTION-REASON BASED
Instructions:
Each question consists of two statements — Assertion (A) and Reason
(R). Choose the correct option:
- (a)
Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
- (b)
Both A and R are true, but R is NOT the correct explanation of A.
- (c)
A is true, but R is false.
- (d)
A is false, but R is true.
Q1.
- Assertion (A):
Members of the Lok Sabha are elected through direct elections. ✔️
- Reason (R):
In direct elections, citizens vote directly to choose their
representatives or leaders. ✔️
- Answer:
(a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
Q2.
- Assertion (A):
The President of India is elected through direct elections. ❌
- Reason (R):
Citizens across India cast their votes directly to elect the President. ❌
- Answer:
Both A and R are false. (The President is elected indirectly by
an Electoral College.)
Q3.
- Assertion (A):
India follows the First-Past-The-Post (FPTP) system for Lok Sabha and
Vidhan Sabha elections. ✔️
- Reason (R):
Under this system, a candidate must secure more than 50% of the votes to
win. ❌
- Answer:
(c) A is true, but R is false.
Q4.
- Assertion (A):
The Vidhan Parishad is elected through Proportional Representation by
Single Transferable Vote (STV). ✔️
- Reason (R):
This system involves preference voting and a fixed quota. ✔️
- Answer:
(a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
Q5.
- Assertion (A):
Only six states in India have a bicameral legislature. ✔️
- Reason (R):
They are Andhra Pradesh, Bihar, Karnataka, Maharashtra, Telangana and
Uttar Pradesh. ✔️
- Answer:
(a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
Q6.
- Assertion (A):
The RPA, 1950 deals with election campaigns and voting procedures. ❌
- Reason (R):
The RPA, 1951 deals with seat allocation and delimitation. ❌
- Answer:
Both A and R are false. (The provisions are interchanged.)
Q7.
- Assertion (A):
Delimitation ensures equal representation by maintaining a nearly equal
population-to-seat ratio. ✔️
- Reason (R):
Delimitation is mandated under Article 82 of the Constitution. ✔️
- Answer:
(b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of
A.
Q8.
- Assertion (A):
India has had four Delimitation Commissions. ✔️
- Reason (R):
They were constituted in 1952, 1963, 1973 and 2002. ✔️
- Answer:
(a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
Q9.
- Assertion (A):
The Election Commission of India is a temporary body. ❌
- Reason (R):
It was established on 25 January 1950 as a permanent constitutional body. ✔️
- Answer:
(d) A is false, but R is true.
Q10.
- Assertion (A):
Articles 324–329 provide for the Election Commission of India. ✔️
- Reason (R):
These Articles define its powers and duties. ✔️
- Answer:
(a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
Q11.
- Assertion (A):
SIR updates, verifies and corrects electoral rolls. ✔️
- Reason (R):
It ensures eligible voters are included and ineligible voters are removed.
✔️
- Answer:
(a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
Q12.
- Assertion (A):
The ECI considers weather, agriculture and festivals while fixing election
dates. ✔️
- Reason (R):
These factors have no impact on voter turnout or convenience. ❌
- Answer:
(c) A is true, but R is false.
Q13.
- Assertion (A):
Only candidates from registered political parties can contest elections. ❌
- Reason (R):
Independent candidates cannot contest elections. ❌
- Answer:
Both A and R are false.
Q14.
- Assertion (A):
ETPBS enables service voters to vote electronically from outside their
constituency. ✔️
- Reason (R):
ETPBS stands for Electronically Transmitted Postal Ballot System. ✔️
- Answer:
(a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
Q15.
- Assertion (A):
Political parties organise public opinion and provide choices to voters. ✔️
- Reason (R):
India follows a single-party system. ❌
- Answer:
(c) A is true, but R is false.
Q16.
- Assertion (A):
An elected member can freely change political parties without
consequences. ❌
- Reason (R):
The Anti-Defection Law prevents defection and promotes stable governments.
✔️
- Answer:
(d) A is false, but R is true.
Q17.
- Assertion (A):
The Anti-Defection Law was enacted through the 52nd Constitutional
Amendment Act, 1985. ✔️
- Reason (R):
The Prime Minister decides defection cases. ❌
- Answer:
(c) A is true, but R is false.
Q18.
- Assertion (A):
A party can become a National Party by securing 6% votes in four or more
states and winning four Lok Sabha seats. ✔️
- Reason (R):
This is one of the ECI's criteria for National Party recognition. ✔️
- Answer:
(a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
Q19.
- Assertion (A):
VVPAT allows voters to verify their vote. ✔️
- Reason (R):
VVPAT stands for Voter Verifiable Paper Audit Trail. ✔️
- Answer:
(a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
Q20.
- Assertion (A):
India's electoral exercise is among the largest in the world, with over 96.8
crore eligible voters (2024). ✔️
- Reason (R):
The Election Commission manages this exercise autonomously using modern
ICT and e-governance. ✔️
- Answer:
(a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
******